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Constitutional remedies 'vs regular remedies...

As I've read the 6th Organon and Chron Dis., I have not understood entirely the idea of a constitutional remedy. Kent refers constantly to the word constitution, but in some cases uses that to indicate the entire set of symptoms at one particular time, rather than something one person would need always... I've seen many modern descriptions of this, but find no references to this in the works of the great old homeopaths.

Can someone share a greater explanation of constitutional remedies.
 
  BeginningHomeopath on 2008-09-30
This is just a forum. Assume posts are not from medical professionals.
This debate is almost as old as homeopathy itself and is the stuff of folklore ;).

I personally think of a constitutional remedy as the last one which is left, when all 'layers' that are capable of being removed, have been removed. This also means, this is the remedy to which the person would resonate at the time of his/her birth. It is just a product of the miasmatic baggage of the parents.

Now, what this means is remedies like Staph are not constitutional as no one is ever born a Staph.
 
sameervermani last decade
'It is just a product of the miasmatic baggage of the parents.'

But we do see inherited miasms cleared all of the time.

Perhaps you can explain your perspective on how inherited miasms are cleared. Most of us have seen physical and psychological aspects of inherited miasms fade with homeopathic treatment.
 
BeginningHomeopath last decade
I think, even when you remove all the miasmatic taints in a person, little bit of psora or (perhaps even pseudo psora) is always left. In the end of the treatment, when you give the constitutional remedy, the person becomes just a positive version of that constitutional type. e.g. A positive Calcarea Carb or a positive Phosphorus with very little of the 'negative' traits of these remedies.
 
sameervermani last decade
What about in families where they have been treated by homeopathy for several generations? Or where the parents have been treated for inherited miasms before having kids and the kids have also been treated their entire lives?

What about patients who have been treated with remedies and constitutional remedies for several decades? If Hahnemann was the first to discuss inherited psora, but he didn't mention anything about constitutional remedies. Even Kent discusses patients who he considers to have no symptoms and for whom he doesn't prescribe anything else.
 
BeginningHomeopath last decade
Let me put it this way, when you give the constitutional remedy in the end(after removing all the layers of the case), every venereal miasmatic taint will be removed after that step; apart from some psoric 'tendencies' of the constitutional remedy.

I do not have concrete answers to these questions as these are some of the very mysterious things about nature of chronic diseases.
 
sameervermani last decade
I've read some things where people have said that constitutional remedies are the one remedy that is for a patient after other remedies have cured everything. This doesn't make much sense to me, and I can find nothing of such in any of Hanhemann's writings.
 
BeginningHomeopath last decade

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