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I have a general enquiry.

Suppose a person is having sycotic traits. No medicine was acting on him.when Medorrhinum was given all medicine start acting wonderfully.The person was not suffering from any sexually transmitted disease. He was also not having gonorrhea.will the sycotic traits be transferred to his wife if they have sexual intimacy before he took medorrhinum. please inform.
  gopal18 on 2016-06-21
This is just a forum. Assume posts are not from medical professionals.
no not at all.
akshaymohl 3 years ago
2 things consider...

was person ever treated in his life for any sexual diseases/ ills?

how sexual promiscuous was person in his life/health history?
John Stanton 3 years ago
well I asked the person. his maternal grandfather was having illicit relation.He was having high sexual desire.the person when young was having high sexual desire. At the age of around 14 he was having pus formation on his glans.not knowing what it was he removed the pus.latter he responded well to medorrhinum.now will the wife get sycotic traits before he used medorrhinum.
gopal18 3 years ago
depends --if response was total cure--and not partial---as such will effect partner in sexual relation---may not get gleet or such--but what I have seen is wife just not right----typically thi sis kept secret and wife just doesn't know what is going on--improper treatments complicating...and thtas how it goes...bury the unwanted--and pretend its ...
John Stanton 3 years ago
thank you sir
gopal18 3 years ago
right on
John Stanton 3 years ago

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